Master the CUET Bio Mock Test 4 with Ease

Hey, friend! Greetings! I am thrilled to share some exciting news with you today.. If you’re preparing for CUET, you’re in for a treat. Our new offering, the CUET Bio Mock Test 4, will help you crack the CUET Biology section.

Stepping up your preparation with this resourceful mock test is a surefire way to ensure success in the CUET.

This test has been designed to replicate the actual exam pattern, and it helps you gain much-needed familiarity with the test’s format. 

Now, you must think, “Why this particular mock test?” So, let’s get down to brass tacks, must we?

CUET Bio Mock Test 4 Overview

I am happy to provide you with a practice test that includes 50 well-crafted questions specifically designed for the exam. Each question has been carefully prepared to reflect the content and format of the real exam accurately. I appreciate you considering this valuable resource to help you prepare for the exam.

1. Which of the given terms are used to represent the male and female gamete respectively in heterogamous organisms?

  • Spermatid, Ootid
  • Sperm, Ovum
  • Spermatogonia, Ogonia
  • Sperm, Oospore

Right Answer Is B
Heterogamous organisms are those which produce two different types of gametes. In heterogamous organisms, the male gamete is quite small in size as compared to the size of the female gamete. The male gamete is known as the sperm and the female gamete is called the ovum or egg in heterogamous organisms.

2. Which of the given plant division members needs water for fertilization?

  • Bryophyta
  • Pteridophyta
  • Thallophyta
  • All of the above

Right Answer Is D
Thallophyta is a group of primitive land plants that includes fungi, lichens, and algae. These plants are simple as they have no roots, leaves, or stems. Bryophyta is a class of non-vascular plants that grow densely on the ground to form a carpet. These plants do not possess vascular tissue and rely on capillarity to move water up and down.
Pteridophytes are vascular plants, but their vascular tissues are primitive. They disperse spores and have hidden reproductive structures. All of these plant groups need water for fertilization. They produce flagellated male gametes which swim in the water to reach the non-motile female gamete.

3. Most of the heterogamous organisms produce _____ male gamete, but the female gamete is _____.

  • Motile, Motile
  • Non-motile, Motile
  • Motile, Non-motile
  • Non-motile, Non-motile

Right Answer Is C
Most heterogamous organisms produce the motile male gamete, but the female gamete is non-motile. Heterogamous organisms have individuals of two different sexes, male and female. Male and female organisms produce different types of gametes. The male gamete is called sperm whereas the female gamete is called the egg or ovum.

4. Which of the following is correct for the non-degradable nature of sporopollenin?

  • It is resistant to very high temperatures.
  • It can withstand strong acids.
  • There is no enzyme which can degrade it.
  • All of the above

Right Answer Is D
Sporopollenin forms the outer wall of pollen grains called exine. It is the highly resistant and non-degradable organic material known. It is non-degradable because it can withstand strong acids and high temperatures. There is no enzyme which can degrade sporopollenin.

5. Which of the following comprises the inner layer or intine of pollen grains?

  • Protein
  • Cellulose
  • Pectin
  • Both B and C

Right Answer Is D
The pollen grain is enclosed in two layers, exine and intine. Intine is the inner layer made up of cellulose and pectin whereas exine is the outer layer made up of sporopollenin.

6. Which cell of the pollen grain is large in size?

  • Vegetative cell
  • Tube cell
  • Both A and B
  • Generative cell

Right Answer Is C
A pollen grain has two cells. One is the vegetative cell or tube cell which forms a pollen tube during pollen germination. While another is the generative cell which divides to form two male gametes. The vegetative (tube) cell is larger in size because it stores an abundant amount of reserved food material. However, the generative cell is very small compared to the vegetative cell.

7. What percentage of angiosperms shed their pollen in the 2-celled stage?

  • 60%
  • 30%
  • 90%
  • 50%

Right Answer Is A
About 60% of angiosperms shed their pollen in the 2-celled stage. Pollen at the 2-celled stage has both vegetative and generative cells in it. Generative cell divides to form two male gametes, in that case, pollen grains are said to be at a 3-celled stage.

8. To which of the given cells, do spermatids get attached for nourishment during spermatogenesis?

  • Interstitial cells
  • Spermatids
  • Sertoli cells
  • Sperm Mother cells

Right Answer Is C
On the inside of each seminiferous tubule are two types of cells which are spermatogonia (male germ cells) and Sertoli cells. Sertoli cells are also referred to as nurse cells. The heads of spermatids get attached to Sertoli cells attached for nourishment during spermatogenesis

9. What is the other name used for Sertoli cells?

  • Reproductive cells
  • Interstitial cells
  • Nurse cells
  • Receptor cells

Right Answer Is C
Sertoli cells are supporting cells that provide nutrients to developing sperms, thus, they are also known as nurse cells.

10. Which of the given hormone regulates the function of Sertoli cells?

  • ACTH
  • FSH
  • Testosterone
  • Estrogen

Right Answer Is B
FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone) acts on the Sertoli cells and regulates their function i.e. stimulating the secretion of certain factors that aid in the process of spermiogenesis. The process of conversion of spermatids into motile sperm is known as spermiogenesis.

11. Which of the following refers to lactational amenorrhea?

  • Absence of menses during lactation
  • Absence of menses in elderly age
  • Absence of menses in adult age
  • Absence of menses during pregnancy

Right Answer Is A
Lactational amenorrhea is the total lack of menstruation during this period of intense lactation. Females go through a period of intense lactation after giving birth. Breastfeeding the child completely prevents conception during this stage.

12. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are used by which of the following?

  • Both males and females
  • Only males
  • Only females
  • None of the above

Right Answer Is C
Rubber barriers such as diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are disposable contraceptives which are inserted into the female reproductive tract to conceal the cervix during coitus. Males cannot use these contraceptives.

13. What is the reason for using spermicidal creams in addition to condoms, cervical caps, diaphragms and vaults?

  • For excess lubrication
  • To kill germs
  • To Increase the effect of contraception
  • None of the above

Right Answer Is C
Spermicides are a type of contraception that is inserted into the vagina before sexual activity begins. They work by causing sperm damage and death in the vagina. Sometimes spermicidal creams are used in addition to condoms, cervical caps, diaphragms and vaults to increase the effect of contraception.

14. Which of the following condition has the same type of genes at the same locus in the genotype of an individual?

  • Heterozygous
  • Homozygous
  • Monoallelic
  • Biallelic

Right Answer Is B
In homozygous conditions, there is the same type of genes at the same locus in the genotype of an individual. However, the type of gene at the same locus in the genotype of an individual is different in heterozygous conditions.

15. How many types of gametes are formed by a heterozygous allelic pair?

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • Numerous

Right Answer Is B
The number of gametes produced is determined by the number of heterozygous alleles found in a given genotype. The formula to find out the number of gametes is 2n, where ‘n’ is the number of heterozygous alleles present in the genotype. For example, in the case of genotype AABbCC (one heterozygous allele), two types of gametes (ABC and AbC) will be produced.

16. Which of the following refers to a cross in which parents differ only in a single pair of contrasting characters?

  • Monohybrid cross
  • Dihybrid cross
  • Trihybrid cross
  • Tetrahybrid cross

Right Answer Is A
The term “monohybrid” refers to the inheritance of only one contrasting trait by two parents at the same time. An example of a monohybrid cross is a cross between a tall (TT) and dwarf (tt) pea plant.

17. What is the genotypic ratio of F2 progenies in a monohybrid cross?

  • 3: 1
  • 1: 2: 1
  • 1: 2: 3
  • 1: 3

Right Answer Is B
Four offspring are produced in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross. In Mendel’s monohybrid cross, F2 progeny have a phenotypic ratio of 3: 1. Three of the offspring have the dominant phenotype, while one has the recessive phenotype.
However, the genotypic ratio of Mendel’s monohybrid cross is 1: 2: 1 which means one individual from the F2 progeny is homozygous dominant (TT), two are heterozygous dominant (Tt), and one is homozygous recessive (tt).

18. Which mice died of pneumonia in Griffith’s experiment?

  • Mice infected with strain-R
  • Mice infected with strain-S
  • Both of the above
  • None of the above

Right Answer Is B
Griffith carried out the transformation experiment using R and S strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae. S-strain is generally pathogenic which causes the death of mice, whereas R-strain is not. Thus, only mice infected with strain-S died.

19. Which of the following characteristics does ideal genetic material possess?

  • It should have the ability to replicate
  • It should possess a stable structure
  • It should not express ‘Mendelian characters’.
  • Both A and B

Right Answer Is D
Because genetic material must be passed down from generation to generation, it must be able to replicate. Because it codes the information for the organism’s survival and reproduction, it must be structurally and chemically stable.
It should be capable of going through slow mutations because slow or low mutation rates induce variability in the population, which can be advantageous for survival under adverse conditions and may also lead to genetic variability. It should be capable of expressing itself through Mendelian characters. As a result, the genetic material must meet all of these requirements. So, it is incorrect that an ideal genetic material should not express ‘Mendelian characters’.

20. Which of the given labels were present on the nucleic acid of Bacteriophage in the Hershey-Chase experiment?

  • 3H-labelled H2O
  • 32P-labelled phosphate
  • 14C-labelled CO2
  • 35S-labelled sulphate

Right Answer Is B
The Hershey and Chase experiment proved that DNA is the genetic material and protein is not. They showed that phosphorus is present in DNA but proteins contain sulphur which DNA lacks. In this experiment, they introduced a radioactive isotope of phosphorus (32P) into the DNA of one phage culture and a radioactive isotope of sulphur (35S) into proteins from a separate phage culture.
Because DNA contains phosphorus but proteins do not, viruses produced in the availability of radioactive phosphorus constituted radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein. Similarly, viruses cultivated on radioactive sulphur incorporate radioactive protein but not radioactive DNA because DNA is sulphur-free.

21. _____ is an example of link species.

  • Dodo
  • Chimpanzee
  • Lobe fish
  • Seaweed

Right Answer Is C
Living organisms that share features of two different species and bridge the gap between them are referred to as link species. Lobe fish is an example of a link species. Around 350 million years ago, fish with stout and strong fins could relocate to land and return to the water.
These were known as lobes, and they diverged evolutionarily into the first amphibians that could live on both land and water, such as the coelacanth. The Dodo is a flightless bird that has become extinct. Chimpanzees are humans’ closest living relatives, and seaweed is multicellular marine algae.

22. Which one of the following is the possible early source of energy on earth?

  • Chlorophyll
  • Green plants
  • UV rays and lightning
  • Carbon dioxide

Right Answer Is C
Chlorophyll might be evolved during the evolution of green algae and green plants evolved later than green algae. So, both chlorophyll and green plants cannot be the early energy source.
Similarly, carbon dioxide is a result of a photosynthesis reaction which is performed by chlorophyll-containing producers and for this reaction they also use sunlight as an energy source. This implies that UV rays and lightning from the sun are the possible early source of energy on earth. Also, Sun was the only energy source when there was nothing present on earth.

23. Which of the given point is favoured by the Abiogenesis theory of origin?

  • Spontaneous generation of life
  • Organic evolution is due to chemical reactions
  • Origin of life is due to pre-existing organisms
  • Origin of life from blue-green algae.

Right Answer Is A
Ancient Greek philosophers and Egyptians supported the theory of abiogenesis, believing that life evolved from abiotic components. They believed that frogs and snakes evolved from the mud of the Nile River. According to this theory, non-living things give birth to living organisms. As a result, this theory supports the spontaneous origin of life.

24. Which of the following worm can enter the human body through the skin of his foot?

  • Wuchereria
  • Ancylostoma
  • Schistosoma
  • Ascaris

Right Answer Is B
When a man walks barefoot in soil, Ancylostoma enters his body through the skin of his foot. Ancylostomiasis is a disease in which this roundworm infects a person’s small intestine. Ascariasis is transmitted via hand-to-mouth contact, which occurs when a person touches and swallows fertilised Ascaris eggs.
Wuchereria infection occurs when filarial parasites are passed on to people via mosquitoes. Infection of Schistosoma occurs when larval forms of the parasite, released by freshwater snails, enter the skin during direct interaction with infested water.

25. Why filariasis is also known as elephantiasis?

  • Due to the enlargement of the leg
  • Due to the enlargement of the tooth
  • The patient starts looking like an elephant
  • This disease affects only elephants

Right Answer Is A
Filariasis is also referred to as elephantiasis due to the extreme enlargement of the legs. It is an infection of the lymphatic system that results in the swelling of infected organs like male genital parts, limbs, and mammary glands.

26. Who discovered blood circulation in the human body?

  • Robert Brown
  • Karl Landsteiner
  • Robert Hooke
  • William Harvey

Right Answer Is D
William Harvey was the first to discover blood circulation in the human body. He was the first to properly describe the circulation of blood in the body. He demonstrated how arteries and veins work together to form a complete circuit.
The circuit begins at the heart and returns there. The regular contractions of the heart propel blood flow throughout the body. The cell was discovered by Robert Hooke, the nucleus of a cell by Robert Brown, and blood groups were discovered by Karl Landsteiner.

27. In which of the given domestication, induced breeding or Hypophysation is employed?

  • Sericulture
  • Apiculture
  • Pisciculture
  • Horticulture

Right Answer Is C
In the case of pisciculture, induced breeding or hypophysation is used. This technique induces spawning in fish by using pituitary gland extract. It allows for spawning and the availability of fish seed at any time of year. Overall, hypophysation allows for the extraction of more fish from a single fish.

28. Which of the following insect thrives on Morus alba?

  • Lac insect
  • Silkworm
  • Honey bee
  • Cochineal insect

Right Answer Is B
Morus alba is the scientific name of the mulberry tree on which silkworm feeds. It basically feeds on the leaves of the mulberry tree.

29. Which of the following is the largest silk-producing state in India?

  • Assam
  • Bihar
  • Bengal
  • Karnataka

Right Answer Is D
Karnataka is the state with the highest silk production. Mysore and North Bangalore are named “Silk City,” and they account for the majority of silk production. This state accounts for nearly 45% of the total mulberry silk production in India.

30. Which of the following is a drink prepared by fermenting sap from palms in some parts of southern India?

  • Tea
  • Beer
  • Toddy
  • Cashew apple

Right Answer Is C
Toddy is a traditional drink prepared in some parts of south India from palm sap fermentation. The sap from the palm tree’s base is collected and fermented using naturally occurring yeast to produce a beverage with an alcohol content of about 6%.

31. The first antibiotic was obtained from which of the given microbe?

  • Staphylococci
  • Penicillium notatum
  • Aspergillus niger
  • Bacillus brevis

Right Answer Is B
In 1928, Alexander Fleming invented penicillin, the first antibiotic derived from the bacterium Penicillium notatum. Antibiotics are microorganism-produced chemical substances that can kill or prevent the growth of many other bacteria and fungi.

32. ______ process is used to produce ______ from malted cereals and fruit juices using Brewer’s yeast.

  • Distillation, Carbon dioxide
  • Distillation, Organic acid
  • Fermentation, Carbon dioxide
  • Fermentation, Alcohol

Right Answer Is D
The fermentation process is used to produce alcohol from malted cereals and fruit juices using Brewer’s yeast. Saccharomyces cerevisiae, also known as Brewer’s yeast, is used in alcoholic fermentation. Fermentation produces ethanol from malted cereals and fruit juices.

33. For which of the given deficiencies, the first clinical application of gene therapy over a 4-year-old girl was done?

  • Adenine deficiency
  • Adenosine deficiency
  • Adenosine deaminase deficiency
  • Growth deficiency

Right Answer Is C
In 1992, a four-year-old girl was treated first time with gene therapy for a genetic defect that caused a deficiency of an important enzyme i.e. ADA (Adenosine deaminase). It is a severe immune system deficiency. The therapy partially restored the patient’s immune system by replacing the defective gene in her blood cells with a functional variant.

34. Which of the following denotes the excision and insertion of a gene?

  • Cytogenetics
  • Genetic engineering
  • Biotechnology
  • Gene therapy

Right Answer Is B
Genetic engineering is the process of modifying organisms’ genetic material (RNA or DNA) to use it to produce industrially valuable substances. The gene of interest is excluded from an organism’s cell and inserted into the vector DNA to construct recombinant DNA. For expression, the recombinant DNA is passed to the host cell.
Biotechnology is an approach that employs living organisms, like microorganisms, or enzymes derived from them, to create products that can benefit the living organism. Gene therapy refers to a method of treatment that involves modifying a person’s genes. The study of the structure and number of DNA inside the cell nucleus is referred to as cytogenetics.

35. Which of the following microbe is used as a cloning vector in higher organisms?

  • Baculovirus
  • Retrovirus
  • Salmonella typhimurium
  • Rhizopus nigricans

Right Answer Is B
Retroviral vectors are made by substituting retroviral env, gag and pol genes with therapeutic genes and are used in gene therapy, which is the practice of inserting DNA into living humans to treat disease. It is used to fix mutant alleles or to substitute a missing gene product.

36. Which of the following microbe is used for insulin production in genetic engineering?

  • Rhizobium
  • Mycobacterium
  • Escherichia
  • Saccharomyces

Right Answer Is C
Insulin is made up of two polypeptide chains which are chain A and chain B. Using rDNA technology, two DNA sequences corresponding to chains “A and B” are introduced into E. coli plasmids to produce insulin.

37. Which of the following is used as a probe to find specific sequences in a DNA or RNA mixture?

  • Either ss DNA or ss RNA
  • Can be ss DNA but not ss RNA
  • Only single-stranded DNA
  • Only single-stranded RNA

Right Answer Is A
A probe is a single-stranded and radioactively labelled DNA or RNA sequence. It is complementary to the gene of interest or target DNA segment and, due to its radioactivity, aids in the identification of the DNA sequence.

38. Which of the following can be cut with the help of restriction endonucleases?

  • RNA fragment
  • Single-stranded DNA
  • mRNA
  • Double-stranded DNA

Right Answer Is D
To cut double-stranded (ds) DNA at palindromic sequences, different types of restriction endonucleases are used. They are known as restriction endonucleases because they trim the DNA within the molecule.

39. Which type of interaction does the climber and its host plant exhibit?

  • Commensalism
  • Neutralism
  • Symbiosis
  • Mutualism

Right Answer Is A
Epiphytes are plants that grow on other plants while leaving the host unaffected. The climber is an epiphyte on its host plant. It gets space from the host plant which is neither harmed nor benefited. So, they exhibit commensalism which is an interaction between two species in which one is benefitted but the other remains unaffected.

40. What will be the effect on both species which are involved in amensalism?

  • Both species are benefitted.
  • Both species are harmed.
  • One species is harmed and the other remains unaffected.
  • One species is benefitted and the other remains unaffected.

Right Answer Is D
Ammensalism is a relationship between two species in which one suffers or is harmed while the other is unaffected.

41. What relationship does the Cladophora alga that lives on the snail shell exhibit?

  • Commensalism
  • Predation
  • Neutralism
  • Mutualism

Right Answer Is A
Commensalism is a relationship in which one organism benefits while others are unaffected. Cladophora alga grown on the snail shell cannot harm it but get space from the snail shell to live, thus, they exhibit commensalism.

42. How much energy will be available at the T2 trophic level if the T1 trophic level is getting 10,000 Joules of energy?

  • 10 J
  • 100 J
  • 1000 J
  • 10000 J

Right Answer Is C
Only 10% of energy is passed to the next trophic level according to Lindeman’s 10% law. That means if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 Joules, then the amount of energy passed to the second trophic level will be 1000 Joules which is 10% of 10,000 Joules.

43. Which is the second most critical element for plant growth after nitrogen?

  • Hydrogen
  • Phosphorous
  • Sulphur
  • Oxygen

Right Answer Is B
Critical elements are the macronutrients that are frequently deficient in soils. There are three of them which are nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium. So, after nitrogen, phosphorous is the critical element for plant growth.

44. Which of the following is odd with respect to functional aspects of the ecosystem?

  • Energy flow
  • Decomposition
  • Species composition
  • Nutrient cycling

Right Answer Is C
Species composition is not a functional aspect of the ecosystem, it is the structural aspect. However, energy flow, decomposition and nutrient cycling are the functional aspects.

45. _____ species are those whose number has recently decreased and is continuing to decline.

  • Indeterminate
  • Rare
  • Vulnerable
  • Endangered

Right Answer Is C
Vulnerable species have populations that have recently declined and are continuing to decline, placing them at high extinction risk in the wild. Barasingha, Nilgiri Langur, Sloth bear, Yak, etc are some examples of vulnerable species.

46. Which of the following species have very few members and live in a small geographical zone?

  • Indeterminate
  • Rare
  • Vulnerable
  • Endangered

Right Answer Is B
Rare species have a small number of members which live in a small geographical area, and are extremely uncommon, rare, or rarely encountered. For example, the Indian Giant Flying Squirrel, Gee’s Golden Langur, Dugong, Malabar Giant Squirrel, etc.

47. Which of the given term is used to refer to the species which are at extinction risk but the reason for their extinction is not known?

  • Indeterminate
  • Rare
  • Vulnerable
  • Endangered

Right Answer Is A
Indeterminate species have members which are on the edge of extinction but the reason is unknown as there is incomplete information to assess their true nature. Examples include Rhinoceros, Sumatran short-eared rabbits, Brazilian three-banded armadillos, etc.

48. The temperature of which atmospheric layer increases during Global warming?

  • Troposphere
  • Stratosphere
  • Mesosphere
  • Ionosphere

Right Answer Is A
The process of Earth’s atmosphere getting heated up is known as global warming. The rate of global warming has risen as greenhouse gas emissions have increased because these gases trap the heat of the sun and do not allow the earth to cool to the lowest possible temperature. Because the amount of greenhouse gas emissions are higher in the troposphere, the majority of the heat is trapped there. As a result of global warming, the heat in the troposphere rises.

49. Which of the gases given below is not a greenhouse gas?

  • Carbon dioxide
  • Ozone
  • Nitrogen
  • Methane

Right Answer Is C
By trapping the sun’s heat, greenhouse gases contribute to keeping the earth warm at night. While it is critical to our survival, it also has some negative consequences. The presence of too many greenhouse gases raises the Earth’s average temperature, causing global warming.
Carbon Dioxide, Ozone, Methane, Water Vapour, and Nitrous Oxide are the major greenhouse gases recorded in the Earth’s atmosphere. Nitrogen, on the other hand, is not a greenhouse gas.

50. Which of the following process happens due to chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)?

  • Tidal Flow
  • Ozone Layer Depletion
  • Wave Propagation
  • Aurora Borealis

Right Answer Is B
Chlorofluorocarbons serve as a catalyst for the breakdown of the Ozone molecule to form one molecular oxygen and one nascent oxygen. The same reaction occurs in our atmosphere’s Stratosphere, where the Ozone layer is available. The presence of CFCs catalyses the ozone breakdown reaction, increasing its rate and thus, causing ozone depletion.

Download Question paper pdf Free.

If you aim to enhance your abilities in preparation for the important test, your search ends here! You can easily access the Cuet Mock Test 4 PDF without any cost.

The uniqueness of CUET Bio Mock Test 4

The CUET Bio Mock Test 4 isn’t your run-of-the-mill practice test. It’s a unique, comprehensive, and insightful tool to equip you with the expertise and confidence required to ace the CUET Biology section.

We understand the need for accessibility and convenience for our students. Hence, we are also offering the ‘cuet biology mock test in hindi’ and the ‘cuet biology mock test in hindi medium’. It’s all about making your preparation journey comfortable and manageable.

 CUET Biology Mock Test 2023: Your Companion for Success

We know the upcoming CUET Biology Mock Test 2023 is causing butterflies in your stomach. Trust me. We’ve got your back! Our CUET Bio Mock Test 4 is designed to address this year’s probable questions, making it an essential companion for your success.

And hey, guess what? We’re offering a “Cuet Biology Mock Test with Answers” to assist you in determining your current level and identifying areas for improvement.

 Accessible and Free: CUET Biology Mock Test Online

Your convenience is our priority. We’re offering the ‘cuet biology mock test online’ and ‘cuet biology mock test free 2023’ versions, allowing you to take the test at your pace from the comfort of your home. 

In addition, we have made available the ‘CUET Biology Mock Test PDF for Free Download’ and the ‘CUET Biology Mock Test PDF Download’ for offline usage. Now, isn’t that a deal you cannot refuse?

 Summing Up: CUET Bio Mock Test 4, Your Key to Success

To sum up, the CUET Bio Mock Test 4 has been designed as a valuable resource to aid in your preparation for CUET Biology. Be it the ‘cuet biology mock test paper’, the ‘cuet biology mock test free in hindi’, or any other format you prefer; we’ve got it all under one roof.

With our comprehensive and accessible test modules, we’re here to make your CUET journey smooth and successful. Are you ready to conquer CUET with me, my friend? Let’s gear up and tackle it together!

Leave a Comment